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Was this man really called Baldwin? Or is this another example of Anglocentrisme? What is wrong with Baudoin or Boudewijn? johanthon (talk) 10:32, 23 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
I'd be willing to bet that the only contemporary version of his name we possess is Latin (prob. Balduinus, Balduuinus). The English is as close to the Latin as the French or Dutch. It is typical of most modern languages that they translate the names of historical figures. What's wrong with Baldwin? Srnec (talk) 23:10, 23 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
The man didn't spoke Latin, nor did his kin, his followers, his dependants, his peasants, or any of his neighbours. In his attested native languages he is not called Baldwin, Balduinus or Balduuinus. And in which primary sources he is called Balduinus or Balduuinus? johanthon (talk) 16:05, 24 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
He's not called Baudouin or Bodewijn in his "attested" language, either. And how do you know he didn't speak Latin? His language may be attested, but is his Germanic name attested in any contemporary primary source referring to him? He is "Balduinus" in the Annales Vedastini. Srnec (talk) 17:10, 24 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
